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It might be just as well that increased sugar intake is caused by mental disorders, as a form of self-medication.

In my case for example, my sugar consumption fell drastically since I received ADHD medications. It turns out I was using sugar as a stimulant/calming agent for years, and no doctor properly figured it out.



From the beginning of the article...

> Although previous studies have found an increased risk of depression with higher consumption of added sugars, none examined the role of ‘reverse causation’. If people with anxiety and/or depression tended to consume more sugary foods and drinks, this could be the real reason why a link between sugar intake and poorer mental health is observed. Although the study looked for this link, it was not seen in the data: men and women with mental disorders were not more likely to consume more sugar. As a result, the evidence that mental health is adversely affected by a high sugar intake is strengthened.


Mental disorders are also correlated with sleep problems; sleep-deprived brains often crave sugar. This might also be another avenue for causation.


> This might also be another avenue for causation.

If people with mental disorders were more sleep-deprived and then consumed more sugar, wouldn't that also show up in the data?

> Although the study looked for this link, it was not seen in the data: men and women with mental disorders were not more likely to consume more sugar.

A causal A > B > C link would look similar (data-wise) to a A > C link.


Not if A => B for only a small population of A. But in that case, you still might see a C => A link.


That really doesn't mean much.

Let group S be sugar eaters.

Let group A be all people w/o mental disorders.

Let group B be all people w/ mental disorders.

We have the main correlation between sugar and mental disorder:

p[A/S] <= p[B/S]

Using bayes rule:

p[A]p[S/A] <= p[B]p[S/B]

We also have "men and women with mental disorders were not more likely to consume more sugar":

p[S/A] >= p[S/B]

Comparing the inequalities gives us:

p[A] <= p[B]

So you're more likely to have a mental dissorder than not according to this study???


>p[A/S] <= p[B/S]

This doesn't follow. Just because mental disorders are correlated with sugar doesn't mean that most sugar eaters have mental disorders.


> no doctor properly figured it out.

You wanted a doctor to figure out you ate too many donuts and candy because of your ADHD?

That's pretty tough considering most people eat too much sugar just because.... it is good. Also it is easy as hell for EVERYONE to give up sugar once you are ADHD meds because they have a great appetite suppression effect.

That's not a special effect of mental disorders.


Without a doubt I have used sugar as medication, many times in my life.

My hypothesis: people that had a lot of sugar as a young person, perhaps in particular ways or situations, has trained their brain to release dopamine in response to sugar. Everyone I know that had little sugar as a young person doesn't get the medicinal value of sugar.


My hypothesis: people are not trained as a young person to seek pleasure, they're genetically programmed to do so; many (most?) modern "foods" are engineered and designed to short-wire various naturally evolved systems by introducing artificial stimulus, thus creating closed feedback loops. The baseline is amended upwards with each iteration, and what was normal yesterday is under stimulating now.

> [...] Scientists call this phenomenon, “supernormal stimulus.” It is what happens when an exaggerated version of what appeals to evolutionary instincts can cause some one or some thing to engage in behavior counterproductive to its own survival (or the survival of its genes).

MORE!

http://joyousandswift.org/hyperstimulus/


That link is very interesting. Thanks.




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