>somehow Walmart is being allowed to tax me, not a Walmart shopper, via my taxes, and transfer it to Walmart's owners and shareholders, by forcing me to pay for part of their employees wages.

How is it a transfer to walmart? The people who get paid the benefit are eligible for it regardless of whether they're employed by walmart or not. Suppose walmart automated their jobs and replaced them with robots, you'll still be on the hook for paying those benefits.

but it hasnt. if they weren't so huge those people might be making living wages working at Bills and Jims and Franklin's sewing shop.

>if they weren't so huge those people might be making living wages working at Bills and Jims and Franklin's sewing shop.

I'm skeptical of this. If anything amazon's push for minimum wage makes me think they're better able to afford the increased cost of labor than their competitors.

Gross profit is profit before paying their employees, so saying they have a gross profit percentage of X is certainly not dispositive (and is close to meaningless) in terms of supporting whether they could pay their employees more than currently.

You need to look at an operating income figure to make such a conclusion. (Or another financial measure that’s “after” labor, but OI is probably the standard one.)

If Walmart makes 1 single cent of profit while having employees on food stamps, then that is the government sponsoring Walmart's profits by allowing it not to pay it's employees a living wage, and banking the difference as "profit".

They are literally taking your tax dollars to do this.

This is the simplest possible economic calculus: a business that doesn't pay full time employees a living wage is getting sponsored by your tax dollars for its profits.